Here’s a very odd question. Can a woman in the first trimester of pregnancy lactate sufficiently to consider nourishing someone, ever herself, on her own milk?
Okay, cut the ‘gross, ug’ and other remarks, and consider the question. Recently this scenario popped up in a manuscript novel I was reading for someone. What to do with this scenario? I did what anyone would do. I looked it up on Google. I looked it up on Bing. It seemed unlikely say the authorities, at least those I could find. There could be some production, if it was not a first pregnancy. It was. It could be only colostrum (pre-milk). It wasn’t. I’m still wrestling with what to tell the author of this potential novel which is full of good solid spy stuff and much derring-do.
So, I’m asking you? If this scenario is physically possible, should be be left in? Should be be described as a physical anomaly in this family? (That’s my best solution so far.)
Does anyone have a better suggestions? Any suggestions? All suggestions are welcome.